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  1. Treatment of choice for compound fractures of tibia is (A) Debridement & internal fixation with screws (B) Debridement & internal fixation with intramedullary nail (C)Debridement & external fixation (D) Debridement & plaster immobilisation
  2. Commonest site of 'solitary bone cyst' is (A) Upper end of femur (B) Upper end of humerus (C) Lower end of femur (D) Upper end of tibia.
  3. Treatment of choice for solitary bone cyst is (A)Simple curettage of cavity (B)Curettage with bone grafting (C)X-ray therapy (D)Complete resection with bone grafting.
  4. Commonest site of spine affected by a wedge compression fracture (A) Cervical (B)Upper thoracic (C)Thoraco-lumbar (D) Lumbar.
  5. Most common cause of pes cavus is (A)Cerebral palsy (B)Freidrich's ataxia (C) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (D)Idiopathic
  6. Finkelstein's test is positive in (A) Carpal tunnel syndrome (B) de Quervain's tenosynovitis (C) Depuytren's contracture (D)Volkmann's ischemic contracture.
  7. Putti -Platt operation is done for (A) Recurrent dislocation of shoulder (B)Recurrent dislocation of patella (C)Flat foot (D)Fracture neck humerus.
  8. 'Onion peel' appearance on radiograph is seen in (A) Giant cell tumor (B)Ewing's sarcoma (C)Osteogenic sarcoma (D)Multiple myeloma.
  9. Commonest primary malignant bone tumor is (A)Chondrosarcoma (B)Osteogenic sarocoma (C)Malignant giant cell tumor (D) Ewing's sarcoma.
  10. Commonest type of spinal tuberculosis is (A) Anterior (B)Posterior (C) Paradiscal (D)Central.
  11. 'Bamboo spine' resulsts from (A) Rheumatoid arthritis (B) Ankylosing spondylitis (C)Phenylketonuria (D)Dermatomyositis.
  12. Earliest radiological sign of tuber culosis of spine is (A)Wedging of vertebra (B)Decreased joint space (C) Syndesmophyte formation (D)Formation of paravertebral abscess.
  13. 'Spina ventosa' results from (A) Sarcoidosis (B) Tuberculisis (C) Histiocytisis-X (D)Heemangioma
  14. Carcinoma which is most likely to develop in chronic osteomyelitis is (A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Osteogenic sarcoma (C) Chondrosarcoma (D)Ewing's sarcoma
  15. A graft of tissue (bone) into a dissimilar tissue is known as (A Heterotopic (B)Orthotopic (C)Allograft (D)Xenograft.
  16. Deformity of hip in stage II of tuberculisis is (A) Flexion, abduction, external rotation (B)Flexion, adduction, internal rotation (C)Extension, abduction external rotation (D)Extension, adduction, internal rotation.
  17. Froment's sign is diagnostic of (A) Ulnar nerve palsy (B)Median nerve palsy (C)Radial nerve palsy (D) Lateral popliteal nerve palsy.
  18. In patients with sickle cell anemia, osteomyelitis usually results from (A) Hemophilus influenzae (B) Salmonella typhi (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (D)Clostridium welchii.
  19. In rheumatoid arthritis, there is primarily involvement of (A) Synovial membrane (B)Articular cartilage (C)Capsule (D)Cancellous bone.
  20. Lamina dura of teeth is not seen in all except (A) Primary hyperparathyroidism (B)Cushing's syndrome (C)Ricckets (D)Paget's disease.
  21. Joint of hand most commonly involved in primary osteo-arthritis is (A) Distal interphalangeal joint (B) Proximal interphalangeal joint (C)Carpometacarpal joint of thumb (D)Wrist joint.
  22. Triple arthrodesis for severe deformities of foot is done when the patient is at least (A) 4 years old (B) 8 years old (C) 10 years old (D)14 years old.
  23. Finding of phosphoethamolamine in urine is pathognomic of (A) Hypophosphatasic ricket (B)Nutritional rickets (C)Vitamin-D resistant rickets (D)Renal osteodystrophy.
  24. Lumbar spinal osteotomy is indicated in (A) Spondylolisthesis (B)Tuberculisis of spine (C)Lumbar canal stenosis (D)Ankylosing spondylitis.
  25. The following are radiological features of chronicc haeemophilic arthropathy of knee joint except (A) Widening of intercondylar notch (B)Epiphyseal overgrowth (C)Inccreased joint space (D) Patellar squaring.
  26. In scurvy, Wimberger line is best seen in (A) Lower end of femur (B)Lower end of radius (C) Patella (D)Upper end of radius.
  27. Commonest bursa involved in Baker's cyst is (A) Bursa anserina (B)Prepatellar (C)Infrapatellar (D)Semimembranosus.
  28. Commonest joint involved in synovial osteochondromatosis is (A) Knee (B)Hip (C)Wrist (D)Shoulder.
  29. Ligament most commonly involved in 'sprained ankle's is (A) Superficial part of deltoid ligament (B) Deeper part of deltoid ligament (C)Anterior talofibular ligament (D) Posterior talofibular ligament.
  30. Which of the following is not associated with increased liability to fracture in the elderly (A) Osteomalacia (B) Osteoporosis (C) Osteopetrosis (D)Osteitis deformans.
  31. Tendons affected by de Quervain's tenosynovitis are (A) Extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis longus (B) Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus (C)Extensor pollicis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus (D) Extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis.
  32. Atlanto-axial subluxation is seen in all except (A) Rheumatoid arthritis (B)Ankylosing spondylitis (C)Gout (D)Retropharyngeal abscess
  33. Chemically plaster of paris is (A) Calcium phosphate (B)Sodium thiosulphate (C)Heemihydrated calcium sulphate (D)Hydrated calcium sulphate.
  34. Which of the following statement about 'osteomalacia' is not true (A)Osteoid formation with failure of mineralisation (B)Multiple fractures with delayed healing (C) Radiologically, there is generalized demineralization with loss of transverse trabeculae (D)Bilateral symmetrical 'looser lines' usually seen in neck of humerus.
  35. Pillow splint used in gradually abducting an infant's hip in CDH is (A) Putti splint (B)Frejka splint (C)Robert Jones splint (D)Zimmer splint.
  36. Immediate treatment of a patient with multiple fractures & shock should be (A) Blood transfusion (B)Ringers lactate (C) Normal saline (D) Plasma
  37. Most serious complication of a compound fracture is (A) Haemorrhage (B) Infection (C) Shortening (D)Muscle contracture.
  38. Which of the following is not feature of Colle's fracture (A) More common in postmenopausal females (B)Distal fragment is displaced and angulated dorsally (C)Distal fragment is impacted & supinated (D)There is no injury to the inferior radio-ulnar joint.
  39. Commonest complication of intertrochanteric fracture (A) Non union (B) Malunion (C) Avascular necrosis (D)Myositis ossificans.
  40. Which of the following statement is true about dislocation of hip (A) Usually anterior (B) Most common complicationof posterior dislocation is sciatic nerve palsy (C) Bigelow's method is used to reduce the dislocation (D)Reduction is urstable if there is frature of posteior lip of acetablum
  41. In fracture neck femur, what is the action of psoas major resonsible for theparticular position of the limb (A) Flexion (B)Adduction (C)Flexion and internal rotation (D)Flexion and external rotation
  42. Varus deforming of the foot is present at (A)Talobilial joint (B)Talonavicular joint (C)Talocalcaneal joint (D)Calcaneocuboid joint.
  43. 'Punched out holes' in skull are seen in (A) Hyperparathyroidism (B)Multiple myeloma (C) Thalassemia major (D)Acromegaly
  44. First radiological sign of osteoarthritis is (A) Sclerosis of subchondral bone (B) Narrowing of joint space (C) Subchondral cyst formation (D)Osteophyte formation.
  45. In clubfoot, the deformity involves (A)Foot only (B)Foot and ankle joint (C) Foot, ankle joint and leg (D)  Foot, ankle joint, leg and knee joint.
  46. All are clinical features of 'cauda equina syndrome' except (A) Saddle anaesthesia (B)Urinary retention (C) Increased tendon reflexes and extensor plantar response (D) Weakness of lower limbs.
  47. In all of the following there is increased bone density except (A) Osteopetrosis (B) Paget's disease (C)Osteitis fibrosa cystica (D)Renal osteodystrophy.
  48. There is absence of clavicle in (A) Achondroplasia (B) Cleidocranial dysotosis (C) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (D)Congenital humero-radial synostosis.
  49. All are radiological features of rickets except (A) Ill defined epiphysis (B)Narrow growth plate (C)Frayed & widened metaphysis (D) Metaphyseal cupping.
  50. Thomas splint was first introduced for the management of (A) Fracture neck femur (B) Fracture tibia (C)Tuberculosis knee (D)Perthes's disease.
  51. Brodie's abscess is usually found in (A) Long tubular bones (B)Short tubular bones (C) Vertebra (D) Flat bones.
  52. The most frequent fracture in childhood involves the (a) Clavicle (b) Distal humerus (c) Radius and Ulna (d) Femur (e) Tibia
  53. The most coommon site for ligamentous injuries are those of the (a) Shoulder joint (b) Elbow joint (c) Knee joint (d) Hip joint (e) Ankle joint
  54. The usual deformity of the leg following a fractured hip is (a) Internal rotation, adduction, shortening (b) Internal rotation, abduction, shortening (c) External rotation, adduction shortening (d) External rotation, abduction, shortening (e) External rotation, abduction, lengthening External rotation, abduction, lengthening
  55. Tertiary syphilitic arthritis most frequently found in the (a) Spine (b) Hip (c) Ankle (d) Knee (e) Shoulder
  56. Which of the following is NOT associated with multiple myeloma (a) Punched out lesions in the skull (b) Amyloid deposition in the joints (c) A septic necrosis of femoral head (d) metastatic classification
  57. The most frequent offending agent in osteomelitis of the spin is (a) Streptococcus (b) Salmonella (c) Pneumococcus (d) Staphylococcus (e) Tubercle bacillus
  58. Volkman's ischaemic contracture is commonly associated with (a) Colle's fracture (b) Fracture shaft of humerus (c) Injuries lower end of humerus in adults or the old (d) Children sustaining supracondylar fracture
  59. Severe low back pain with a sciatic distribution, aggravated by coughing, sneezing and straining, relieved by lying down is most characteristic (a) Spinal nerve tumour (b) Ruptured intervertebral disc (c) Both (d) Neither
  60. The commonest cause of torticollis is (a) Hemivertebra (b) Sternomastoid tumour (c) throat infection (d) Klippel-Feil syndrome
  61. Club foot results from (a) Moulding defect (b) Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita (c) Myopathy (d) Unknown cause
  62. The position of the upper limb in posterior dislocation of shoulder is (a) Neutral position (b) Adduction and external rotation (c) Abduction and internal rotation (d) Forward flexion
  63. The earliest sign of tuberculosis of spine is (a) paraplegia (b) muscle spasm (c) abscess formation (d) deformity
  64. The commonest hip injury in the elderly patients is (a) Sub-capital capsular fracture neck of femur (b) Impacted fracture neck of femur (c) Extracapsular fracture (d) Stress fracture
  65. The ideal treatment for giant-cell tumour of bone of lateral condyle of lower end of femur is (a) Curettage (b) Radical excision and turn grafting (c) Irradiatio (d) Radical excision, intramedullary fixation and turn grafting
  66. The rocker bottom foot is due to (a) Poliomyelitis (b) Over corrected club foot (c) Vertical talus (d) Spinal dysraphism
  67. Encchondroma is coommon is (a) Vertebrae (b) Long bones (c) Flat bones (d) Short Long bones
  68. Osteitis fibrosa cystica is due to (a) Paget's disease of bone (b) Polycystic fibrous dysplasia (c) Parathyroid adenoma (d) None of the above
  69. The commonest cause of cervicobrachial neuralgia is (a) Cervical rib (b) Scalenus anticus syndrome (c) Cervical Spondylosis (d) Acute Cervical disc prolapse
  70. The commonest type of Supra-condylar fracture of humerus is (a) Extension type (b) Flexion type (c) Inbetween condyles (d) Fracture dislocation
  71. Boutonniere Deformity of finger results from (a) Rupture of flexor digitorum sublimis tendon (b) Rupture of one lateral slip of extensor tendon (c) Rupture of central slip of extensor tendon (d) Rupture of incision of lateral slips of extensor tendon
  72. Commonest type of deformity in club foot is (A) Talipes calcaneovalgus (B)talipes calcaneovarus (C) Talipes equinovarus (D)Talipes equinovalgus.

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