1. Which of the following agents is least likely to release endogenous histamine ? (a) Penicillin (b) Morphinee (c) Vasopressin (d) Propanidid
2. The mechanism of action of antihistamines (a) Is prevention of release of endogenous histamine (b) Is through inactivation of histamine (c) Is via enzyme induction (d) Is one receptor occupation
3. Streptomycin (a) Isa highly mutagenic agent (b) In very low concentration may stimulate bacte-ial growth (c) Is more effective against multiplying cells (d) Is more active in acid than alkaline medium
4. Extra pyramidal symptoms are commonly met with (a) Metoclopramide (b) Phenothiazeneg (c) Reserpine (d) All of the above
5. Digitalis has most profound effect in which of the following conditions (a) Hyper thyroidism (b)Constrictive pericarditis (c)Atrial fibrillatioon (d) Beri beri heart disease (e) Active rheumatic fever
6. Treatment of insomnia due to anxiety is with (a) Morphine (b) imipramine (c) meprobamate (d) ethyl ether
7. The drug used to correct low Prothrombin level in the blood is (a) Menadione sodium bisulfite (b) Calcium gluconate (c) Acetyl salycilic acid (d) Warfarin sodium
8. A sulfonamide that is rapidly absorbed and excreted (a) Succinyl sulfathrazole (b)Phthalyl sulphathiazole (c) Sulphadiazine (d) Sulphamethoxy pyridazine
9. The antihypertensive agent which improves renal circulation is (a) Chlorthiazide (b) Guanethidine (c) Aprisoline (d) Methyldopa
10. Absorption of tetracycline from the gastrointestinal tract is impaired by simultneous administration of (a) Milk (b) Vitamin B complex (c) Glucose (d) Streptomycin
11. The fall in blood pressure occassionally seen after curare (during anaesthesia) would be prevented by (a) Antihistamines (b) Spinal anaesthesia (c) Inhalation of nitrites (d) atropine
12. Pyrazinamide (a) Increases the excretion of uric acid by kidneys (b) Decreases the excretion off uric acid by kidneys (c) Increases the serum uric acid level (d) Causes no change in serum uric acid level
13. Opisthotonus is seen in (a) Phenothiazene over dosage (b) Parkinsonism (c) Potts disease (d) Spinal poliomyelitis
14. The very effective and the drug of choice for cutaneous larva migrans (children's sand piles) is (a) Mebendazole (b) Thiabendazole (c) Niridazole (d)Diethylcarbamazine
15. 15.The use of outdated tetracyclinee preparations may cause (a) Foetal hepatic dysfunction with pancreatitis (b) ''A'' reversible 'Fanconi-like ' syndrome with renal tuberlar acidosis (c) Discolouration, enamel dysplasia & hypoplasia of teeh (d) Superinfection with Candida albicans
16. The drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is (a) Epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine (c) Histamine (d) Corticosteroid
17. One of the following drug is NOT hepatotoxic (a) Refampicin (b) Chloroquine (c) Tetracycline (d) Carbontetrachloride
18. Antibiotic used in penicillin resistant cases include all, EXCEPT (a) Erythromycin (b) Carbenecillin (c) Cloxacillin (d) Cephalexin
19. Which of the following acts commonly both on parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions (a) Atropine (b) Acetylcholine (c) Pilocarpine (d) Adrenaline
20. Dapsone is used in all, EXCEPT (a) Leprosy (b) Lymphoma (c) Malaria (d) Dermatitis herpetiformis
21. The drug, which should not be given sublingually is (a) Nifedipine (b) Isoprenaline (c) Methytestosterone (d) Glyceryltrinitrate
22. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in ventricular tachycardia ? (a)Indomethacin (b) Thiazide (c) Phenylbutazone (d)All of the above 1
23. Drugs inducing enzymes are all except (A) Phenobarbitone (B) Prednisolone (C) Phenylbutazone (D)Phenytoin
24. In 'Second order kinetics' the rate of elimination of drug is (A) Directly proportional to its concentration (B) Independent of change in its concentration (C) Proportional to square of the concentration (D) Inversely proportion to its concentration.
25. All are bacteriostatic except (A)Erythromycin (B) Rifampicin (C) Tetracycline (D) Novobiocin.
26. Daily maintenance dose of digoxin is (A) 0.25-0.5 mg (B) 0.5-1 mg (C) 1-5 mg (D) 5-10 mg
27. Both a and b blocking activities are present in (A) Tolazoline (B) Labetalol (C) Propranolol (D) Acebutolol
28. Drug showing 'hepatic first pass' metabolism is (A) Propranolol (B) Lignocaine (C) Chlorpromazine (D) All of the above.
29. Hemorrhagic cystitis results from (A) Cyclophosphamide (B) Methotrexate (C) 5-FU (D) Melphalan
30. Tolbutamide acts by (A) Increasing peripheral utilization of glucose (B) Increased insulin secretion (C) Antagonises glucagon (D) Decreased hepatic gluconeogenesis.
31. Drug used for influenza chemoprophylaxis is (A) Acyclovir (B) Amantadine (C) Idoxuridine (D) Sulphadiazine.
32. Drug of choice in typhoid carrier state is (A) Ampicillin (B)Co-trimoxazole (C)Chloromycetin (D) Erythromycin.
33. Hypokalemia is caused by all except (A) Amphotericin-B (B) Lithium (C) Gentamicin (D) Carbenoxolone.
34. Honey combing of lung is caused by all except (A) Busulphan (B) Bleomycin (C) Methotrexate (D) Nitrofurantoin.
35. Which of the following antiarrhythmic can be safely used in chronic renal failure (A) Quinidine (B) Disopyramide (C) Digoxin (D) Bretylium
36. Drug of choice in disabling tardive-dyskinesia without psychosis is (A) Carbidopa (B) Diazepam (C) Reserpine (D) Bromicriptine.
37. 'Gray baby syndrome' results from toxicity to (A) Tetracycline (B) Chloramphenicol (C) Clindamycin (D) Ampicillin.
38. Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting histamine release (A) Sodium chromoglycate (B) Clonidine (C)a-methyl dopa (D) Prednisolone.
39. Levodopa is contraindicated in patients with following except (A) Narrow angle glaucoma (B) Acute psychosis (C)Cardiomyopathy (D) Hepatic failure.
40. Drug of choice in infections due to 'Bacteroides fragilis' is (A) Tetracycline (B)Chloramphenicol (C) Clindamycin (D) Lincomycin
41. Barbiturate not potentiated in hepatic failure is (A) Barbitone (B) Phenobarbitone (C) Pentobarbitone (D) Amylobarbitone
42. In Co-trimoxazole, sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim are in ratio in (A) 1:5 (B) 5:1 (C) 3:1 (D) 2:1
43. Agranulocytosis is caused by all except (A) Methyldopa (B) Carbamazepine (C) Fluoxymesterone (D) Colchicine.
44. Which of the following is not decreased as a result of effect of cimetidine on gastric juice secretion (A) Volume (B) Hydrogen ion concentration (C) Pepsin concentration (D) Intrinsic factor concentration.
45. The following electrophysiologic properties of myocardium are decreased by quinidine except (A) Effective refractory period (B) Conduction velocity (C) Automaticity (D) Excitability.
46. Antihypertensive which acts by blocking action at autonomic ganglia is (A) Guanethidine (B) Trimetaphan (C) Clonidine (D) Reserpine.
47. Major side effect of tetracycline is (A) Neutropenia (B) Polyuria (C) Gastrointestinal symptoms (D) Allergic reactions.
48. All of the following drugs cause hypersensitive cholestatic jaundice except (A) Chlorpromazine (B) Sulphonamide (C) Ampicillin (D) Erythromycin.
49. Concentration of ethyl alcohol most useful as skin antiseptic is (A) 50% by weight (B) 60% by weight (C) 66% by volume (D) 76% by volume.
50. Chlorpropamide metabolism is increased by (A) Sulphonamide (B) Salicylate (C) Chronic alcoholism (D) Phenytoin.
51. Metoclopramide is useful in treatment of all except (A) Drug induced emesis (B) Gastric ulcer (C) Reflux oesophagitis (D) Duodenal ulcer.
52. Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin (A) Cephalothin (B) Cefazolin (C) Cefuroxime (D) Cefotaxime.
53. Dapsone is useful in treatment of all except (A) Leprosy (B) Lymphoma (C) Chloroquine resistant malaria (D) Dermatitis herpetiformis.
54. All of the following drugs interfere with folic acid absorption except (A) Phenytoin (B) Primidone (C) Phenobarbitone (D) Pentazocine.
55. Resistance of S.typhi to chloramphenicol is due to (A) Drug tolerance (B) Drug impermeability (C) Drug destruction by enzymes (D) All of the above.
56. All are side effects of bromocryptine except (A) Hallucination (B) Tremors (C) Suppression of lactation (D) Postural hypotension.
57. Which of the following is a second generation sulphonylurea (A) Tolbutamide (B) Acetohexamide (C) Tolazamide (D) Glipizide.
58. A drug having affinity and submaximal intrinsic activity is (A) Agonist (B) Partial agonist (C) Competitive antagonist (D) Functional antagonist.
59. All are the side effects of chronic phenytoin therapy except (A) Osteomalacia (B) Gynaecomastia (C) Megalobastic anemia (D) Gum hypertrophy.
60. Drug of choice in Trichuris trichiura infestation is (A) Mebendazole (B) Piperazine (C) Pyrivium (D) Tinidazole.
61. Which of the following anaticancer drug is both nephrotoxic and ototoxic (A) Cyclophosphamide (B) Methotrexate (C) Cisplatin (D) L-Asparaginase.
62. Drug of the choice in Guinea worm infestation is (A) Niridazole (B) Tinidazole (C) Mebendazole (D) Levamisole.
63. Which of the following adverse effect is not seen with chronic colchicine therapy (A)Aplastic anemia (B) Agranulocytosis (C) Myopathy (D) Hepatoxicity.
64. Hydroxy ethyl starch is used as (A) Osmotic diuresis (B) Plasma expander (C) Debriding agent (D) Hypolipedemic drug.
65. Which of the followinsg diuretic inhibits the sodium transport at proximal convoluted tubule (A) Acetazolamide (B) Furosemide (C) Chlorothiazide (D) Amiloride.
66. Tachyphylaxis is seen in all except (A) Amphetamine (B) Reserpine (C) Tyramine (D) Ephedrine.
67. Paradoxical tachycardia may be produced by (A) Digoxin (B) Phenytoin (C) Quinidine (D) Lidocaine.
68. Drug used as prophylactic to prevent ventricular arrhythmias in myocardial infarction is (A) Digoxin (B) Phenytoin (C) Quinidine (D) Lidocaine.
69. Nephrotoxity of streptomycin is increased by all except (A) Cephaloridinee (B) Amphotericin B (C) Vancomycin (D) Furosemide.
70. Which of the following antimalarial is gametocidal (A) Primaquine (B) Pyrimethamine (C) Quinine (D) Chloroguanide.
71. Which of the following is a reflex expectorant (A) Bromhexine (B) Acetyl cysteine (C) Potassium iodide (D) Ammonium chloride.
72. All of the following inhibit ribosomal activity except (A) Mitomycin (B) Streptomycin (C) Tetracycline (D) Chloramphenicol.

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